Simple but probably silly... I was told that torque is multiplied by the gear ratios and final drive of a powertrain. Is this true?
If so, if a car has peak torque of 100 lb/ft with 1st gear ratio 3.6 and final drive 3.1, does that mean in 1st gear at full throttle there will be 1,116 lb/ft torque being split to the rear wheels?? That can't be right, surely?! (100 x 3.6 x 3.1 = 1116)
Can anybody shed some light on this?
If so, if a car has peak torque of 100 lb/ft with 1st gear ratio 3.6 and final drive 3.1, does that mean in 1st gear at full throttle there will be 1,116 lb/ft torque being split to the rear wheels?? That can't be right, surely?! (100 x 3.6 x 3.1 = 1116)
Can anybody shed some light on this?